On Thu, Jul 2, 2020 at 12:15 PM Paul Moore firstname.lastname@example.org wrote:
My understanding is that technically "he" takes a dual role in English, as both masculine (technical linguistics gender) 3rd person singular and "indeterminate" 3rd person singular (because English doesn't have an "indeterminate-but-not-neuter" gender - do any other languages?).
English has very few gender inflections at all, especially Modern English (i.e. since 16th century CE). We have pronouns, but "they" has long been used in that "indeterminate-not-inanimate" way since 14th century (different from "it"). "He" has often been used that as well, but really with the implication that a generic person is male.
Other languages indeed have more complex grammatical gender. For example, Swahili 'has a complex grammatical gender https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_gender system, but as this does not include a distinction based on natural sex, the term "noun class" is generally used instead of "gender".'