[Python-3000] [PythonInfo Wiki] Update of "GoogleSprintPy3k" by

Michael Urman murman at gmail.com
Tue Aug 22 05:07:04 CEST 2006

On 8/21/06, Guido van Rossum <guido at python.org> wrote:
> I'd like map(f, a, b) to be the same as to (f(*x) for x in zip(a, b))
> so we have to explain less. (And I think even map(f, *args) === (f(*x)
> for x in zip(*args)).)

Should map(None, a, b) == zip(a, b), leaving python with multiple ways
to do one thing? Or should the surprising but useful map(None, ...)
behavior disappear or become even more surprising by padding? Is there
any reason at all for map to take multiple sequences now that we have
starmap and (i)zip?
Michael Urman  http://www.tortall.net/mu/blog

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