Is time.time() < time.time() always true?

Gabriel Genellina gagsl-py at yahoo.com.ar
Wed Nov 22 01:41:07 CET 2006


At Tuesday 21/11/2006 20:10, flamesrock wrote:

>The question was, is the statement:
>
>time.time() < time.time()
>
>always true? Seems it should be false, since the statement itself
>occurs at one time instant.. but of course we know that python doesn't
>execute code that way.. So my question is, why doesn't Python work this
>way?

The only thing Python can guarantee, is that the left expression is 
evaluated before the right one (5.13 Evaluation order, Language Reference).

Then, whether the first call yields a result always less (or equal) 
to the second, is out of Python scope (and control).
(They might be equal if both calls get the same quantum of time; they 
might be reversed if some other process sets the time in the past).


-- 
Gabriel Genellina
Softlab SRL 

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