Is time.time() < time.time() always true?

Chris Mellon arkanes at gmail.com
Wed Nov 22 00:25:44 CET 2006


On 21 Nov 2006 15:10:25 -0800, flamesrock <flamesrock at gmail.com> wrote:
> So, I was blazin' some mad chronix, as they say, and got on to thinking
> about Python.
>
> The question was, is the statement:
>
> time.time() < time.time()
>
> always true? Seems it should be false, since the statement itself
> occurs at one time instant.. but of course we know that python doesn't
> execute code that way.. So my question is, why doesn't Python work this
> way?
>

This would only be false if the time between the 2 calls was less than
the precision of the OS call that time.time uses.



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