Does '!=' equivelent to 'is not' [drifting OT...]
ptmcg at austin.rr.com
Wed Jun 18 16:01:23 CEST 2008
On Jun 17, 7:09 am, Derek Martin <c... at pizzashack.org> wrote:
> On Tue, Jun 17, 2008 at 04:33:03AM -0300, Gabriel Genellina wrote:
> > > Basically 'a is b' and 'not(a is b)' is similar to 'id(a) == id(b)'
> > > and 'not(id(a) == id(b))'
> > No.
> Saying a flat "no" alone, without qualifying your statement is
> generally interpreted as rude in English... It's kind of like how you
> talk to children when they're too young to understand the explanation.
Geez, man, this is Usenet. If you want rude or condescending, the
answer would have been "No, you flatulent moron." Or maybe the
alarmist, "No! No! No!"
I see the unqualified "No." often on this list, as a short cut for
"Your technical explanation is flawed or has overlooked a critical
point or corner case," and is usually followed by more details further
down in the post to explain what the misconception or oversight was.
Back in my college days, I would not be surprised for a professor to
respond "No." (or worse) if I offered an erroneous explanation to
another student. The unqualified "No." may be curt, and on a more
sensitive day, one might write "No. (see below)", but as one of the
most informed and careful posters on this list, I'm inclined to give
Gabriel a little slack.
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