Mapping None. Why?

Ian Kelly ian.g.kelly at gmail.com
Thu Jun 12 21:40:57 CEST 2008


On Thu, Jun 12, 2008 at 1:05 PM, Paddy <paddy3118 at googlemail.com> wrote:
>
> Iam wondering why the peculiar behavior of map when the function in
> given as None:

Because that's the way it's always been!  Seriously, I don't know.  I
can tell you that it's going away in Python 3.0, though.

Ian



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