why (1, 2, 3) > [1, 2, 3] is true?
chardster at gmail.com
Thu Feb 25 15:21:56 CET 2010
On Feb 25, 2:03 pm, fat bold cyclop <fat.bold.cyc... at gmail.com> wrote:
> > Both are not equal, so the comparison returns an arbitrary result in Py2.
> Thanks, Stefan. If I understand you correctly the comparison is not
> But I wonder if there is any logic behind this (in 2.x).
> Is it possible to predict result of this comparison?
> Thanks again,
I believe in 2.x they are ordered by the names of their types but I
could be wrong.
1 <  < '' < () < u''
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